سوال های چند گزینه ای ریدینگ آیلتس

سوال های چند گزینه ای ریدینگ آیلتس

IELTS Reading Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

Multiple choice questions appear regularly in both the Academic and General IELTS Reading tests. They are fairly simple to complete but it’s easy to get tricked into picking the wrong answer.

Here’s what’s included:

  • Explanation of this question type
  • Key tips
  • The strategy
  • Examples from real test papers
  • Step-by-step instructions & model answer

The aim of this type of question is to test if you can:

  • Understand the main idea of each paragraph
  • Scan for specific information
  • Use detailed reading to differentiate between several possible answers

 



The Task

You will be asked to:

1) Read the first half of a sentence, a statement or a question about the text.

2) Choose the most appropriate sentence ending, response or answer from a choice of a number of options (usually 4). Only one is correct although several could appear to be the right one on first reading, so beware.

Here’s an example of how the instructions and questions will be set out. It's part of a question taken from a past test paper. 

Questions 14-18

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14.  What did the 2006 discovery of the animal bone reveal about the lynx?

    A. Its physical appearance was very distinctive.
    B. Its extinction was linked to the spread of farming.
    C. It vanished from Britain several thousand years ago.
    D. It survived in Britain longer than was previously thought.

15.  What point does the writer make about large predators in the third paragraph?

    A. Their presence can increase biodiversity.
    B. They may cause damage to local ecosystems.
    C. Their behaviour can alter according to the environment.
    D. They should be reintroduced only to areas where they were native.

16.  What does the writer suggest about British conservation in the fourth paragraph?

    A. It has failed to achieve its aims.
    B. It is beginning to change direction.
    C. it has taken a misguided approach.
    D. It has focused on the most widespread species.

17.  Protecting large areas of the sea from commercial fishing would result in

    A. practical benefits for the fishing industry.
    B. some short-term losses to the fishing industry.
    C. widespread opposition from the fishing industry.
    D. certain changes to techniques within the fishing industry.

18. According to the author, what distinguishes rewilding from other environmental campaigns?

    A. Its objective is more achievable.
    B. Its supporters are more articulate.
    C. Its positive message is more appealing.
    D. It is based on sounder scientific principles.

 

Bring back the big cats

It’s time to start returning vanished native animals to Britain, says John Vesty

There is a poem, written around 598 AD, which describes hunting a mystery animal called a llewyn. But what was it? Nothing seemed to fit, until 2006, when an animal bone, dating from around the same period, was found in the Kinsey Cave in northern England. Until this discovery, the lynx – a large spotted cat with tasselled ears – was presumed to have died out in Britain at least 6,000 years ago, before the inhabitants of these islands took up farming. But the 2006 find, together with three others in Yorkshire and Scotland, is compelling evidence that the lynx and the mysterious llewyn were in fact one and the same animal. If this is so, it would bring forward the tassel-eared cat’s estimated extinction date by roughly 5,000 years.

 

However, this is not quite the last glimpse of the animal in British culture. A 9th-century stone cross from the Isle of Eigg shows, alongside the deer, boar and aurochs pursued by a mounted hunter, a speckled cat with tasselled ears. Were it not for the animal’s backside having worn away with time, we could have been certain, as the lynx’s stubby tail is unmistakable. But even without this key feature, it’s hard to see what else the creature could have been. The lynx is now becoming the totemic animal of a movement that is transforming British environmentalism: rewilding.

 

Rewilding means the mass restoration of damaged ecosystems. It involves letting trees return to places that have been denuded, allowing parts of the seabed to recover from trawling and dredging, permitting rivers to flow freely again. Above all, it means bringing back missing species. One of the most striking findings of modern ecology is that ecosystems without large predators behave in completely different ways from those that retain them. Some of them drive dynamic processes that resonate through the whole food chain, creating niches for hundreds of species that might otherwise struggle to survive. The killers turn out to be bringers of life.

 

Such findings present a big challenge to British conservation, which has often selected arbitrary assemblages of plants and animals and sought, at great effort and expense, to prevent them from changing. It has tried to preserve the living world as if it were a jar of pickles, letting nothing in and nothing out, keeping nature in a state of arrested development. But ecosystems are not merely collections of species; they are also the dynamic and ever-shifting relationships between them. And this dynamism often depends on large predators.

 

At sea the potential is even greater: by protecting large areas from commercial fishing, we could once more see what 18th-century literature describes: vast shoals of fish being chased by fin and sperm whales, within sight of the English shore. This policy would also greatly boost catches in the surrounding seas; the fishing industry’s insistence on scouring every inch of seabed, leaving no breeding reserves, could not be more damaging to its own interests.

 

Rewilding is a rare example of an environmental movement in which campaigners articulate what they are for rather than only what they are against. One of the reasons why the enthusiasm for rewilding is spreading so quickly in Britain is that it helps to create a more inspiring vision than the green movement’s usual promise of ‘Follow us and the world will be slightly less awful than it would otherwise have been.’

 

The lynx presents no threat to human beings: there is no known instance of one preying on people. It is a specialist predator of roe deer, a species that has exploded in Britain in recent decades, holding back, by intensive browsing, attempts to re-establish forests. It will also winkle out sika deer: an exotic species that is almost impossible for human beings to control, as it hides in impenetrable plantations of young trees. The attempt to reintroduce this predator marries well with the aim of bringing forests back to parts of our bare and barren uplands. The lynx requires deep cover, and as such presents little risk to sheep and other livestock, which are supposed, as a condition of farm subsidies, to be kept out of the woods.

 

On a recent trip to the Cairngorm Mountains, I heard several conservationists suggest that the lynx could be reintroduced there within 20 years. If trees return to the bare hills elsewhere in Britain, the big cats could soon follow. There is nothing extraordinary about these proposals, seen from the perspective of anywhere else in Europe. The lynx has now been reintroduced to the Jura Mountains, the Alps, the Vosges in eastern France and the Harz mountains in Germany, and has re-established itself in many more places. The European population has tripled since 1970 to roughly 10,000. As with wolves, bears, beavers, boar, bison, moose and many other species, the lynx has been able to spread as farming has left the hills and people discover that it is more lucrative to protect charismatic wildlife than to hunt it, as tourists will pay for the chance to see it. Large-scale rewilding is happening almost everywhere – except Britain.

 

Here, attitudes are just beginning to change. Conservationists are starting to accept that the old preservation-jar model is failing, even on its own terms. Already, projects such as Trees for Life in the Highlands provide a hint of what might be coming. An organisation is being set up that will seek to catalyse the rewilding of land and sea across Britain, its aim being to reintroduce that rarest of species to British ecosystems: hope.

 

Key Tips

  • Read the questions first. If you do this, you’ll know what you’re looking for when you read the text which will save you loads of time.
  • The answers will be in order. It’s very helpful to know that the answers come in order in the text which isn’t the case with all question types. This makes it easier to find them. So, if you’ve found answer 1 in paragraph 1 and answer 2 in paragraph 3, you’ll know that answer 3 won’t be too much further on in the text.
  • Read in detail. For some question types, you’ll be mostly skimming and scanning the text for the answers. You’ll need these skills here too but with multiple choice questions, the detail is important.
  • Watch out for distractors. Be aware that the test setters love to include ‘distractors’ in the answer options to try and catch you out. A prime example is qualifying words such as every, all, most, a few. They are only small words but they can completely change the meaning of a sentence.

              E.g. Everyone who ate the prawn sandwiches at the party was ill.

                     Most people who ate the prawn sandwiches at the party were ill.

  • Don’t leave any blank answers. If you really can’t decide which answer is right, then guess. There’s at least a chance that you’ll guess correctly and get the mark. If you don’t put an answer, the question will be marked ‘wrong’ by the examiner.

 



False Answers

It’s also useful to know the types of incorrect answers that might be included. Be alert for answers that give:

1) Almost the correct information. (Watch out for those distractors.)

2)The opposite information. (It’s easy to be fooled by these.)

3) Information that’s included in the same paragraph as the true answer but not relevant to the question.

4) Information related to the question which is not included in the text.

 



Strategy For Answering Multiple Choice Questions

 

I’ll show you how to apply this strategy in the example below but first, you need to understand it. Follow these steps.



1) Read the questions

Carefully read the questions. Don’t worry if there are words you don’t understand. If they appear in the text, you may be able to work them out in context. Alternatively, synonyms that you do understand may have been used.

If unfamiliar words appear in incorrect answer options, they don’t matter so much, although you’ll need to make an educated guess at them in order to eliminate the answer.

 

2) Skim read the text

On this first reading of the text, you are aiming to get just the general meaning.

 

3) Identify key words

Return to the questions and underline key words in them. These will help you find the location of the correct answer in the text. I’ve underlined them in question 1 below as an example.

This is question 1 from the sample test we'll be working on in a minute.

In the text, synonyms will almost certainly be used for some of them, so think about what these might be as you pick out the key words.

Questions 1 – 4 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet

1           In paragraph one, the writer suggests that companies could consider

A abolishing pay schemes that are based on age.

B avoiding pay that is based on piece-rates.

C increasing pay for older workers.

D equipping older workers with new skills.

2           Skill Team is an example of a company which

A offers older workers increases in salary.

B allows people to continue working for as long as they want.

C allows the expertise of older workers to be put to use.

D treats older and younger workers equally

3           According to the writer, ‘bridge’ jobs

A tend to attract people in middle-salary ranges.

B are better paid than some full-time jobs.

C originated in the United States.

D appeal to distinct groups of older workers.

4           David Storey’s study found that

A people demand more from their work as they get older.

B older people are good at running their own businesses.

C an increasing number of old people are self-employed.

D few young people have their own businesses.

 

 

 

4) Think about meaning

Your other task while looking at the answer options is to try and work out the difference in meaning between them. Two may be very similar. Don’t spend too much time on this but doing it will save you precious minutes in the next step.



5) Predict the correct answer

From your general understanding of the text, you may be able to make a reasonable prediction of the right answer to some of the questions. Put a mark next to your prediction in pencil. You may not be right, but this will help you to narrow down the options.



6) Read the text again

Now re-read the text a paragraph at a time, particularly scanning for the key words you identified and likely synonyms. Remember that the answers will be in order so you can expect the first one to be in paragraphs 1 or 2.

In our sample test paper, the first question helpfully states that the answer is in paragraph 1:

 

1 In paragraph one, the writer suggests that companies could consider



Once you’ve located the section of text containing the answer, read in detail to fully understand it. Now go back and read the answer options again.

Usually, one or two options will clearly be wrong. Cross them out to eliminate them once you are sure they’re incorrect.

Continue to study the detail in the remaining answers until you've identified the right one.

If one answer jumps out at you as obviously correct, double-check it in case the examiner has succeeded in tricking you in the way I suggested in my key tips. It’s also worth going through the process of eliminate the other answers before finally deciding just to be sure.



7) Deciding between similar answers

It’s common to end up with two very similar answer options that it’s difficult to decide between. In this case, you need to study them in even more detail to identify the difference.

First, write them out one under the other unless they already appear like this on the sheet.

Here are a couple of tactics you can then use to compare them:           

  • Paraphrase each one in your own words.
  • Identify distractors such as qualifying words that give them different meanings.
  • Compare keywords and synonyms between them and with the question.

8) Move on

Time will always be against you. If you get really stuck with an answer, you’ll need to take an educated guess so you at least write something on the answer paper. If you’re down to two possible answers then you have a 50% chance of picking the correct one.

Do this and keep moving on through the test.

The more you practice your general reading skills and this strategy for answering multiple choice questions, the quicker you’ll get and the easier they’ll become.

Use all the information, tips and strategies on the pages in the menu below.

 



Example with answers

The passage is just a part of the full text used the exam. In the real test, a longer version appeared and it had several different types of questions set on it.

Before checking the answers, you might want to try answering it yourself for practice. When you’ve completed the task, read my notes below on how I found the answers. They include lots more tips to help you with multiple choice questions.

Sample Academic Reading – Multiple Choice [Note: This is an extract from a Part 1 text about older people in the workforce.]

© The Economist Newspaper Limited, London, 1999

 

The general assumption is that older workers are paid more in spite of, rather than because

of, their productivity. That might partly explain why, when employers are under pressure to

cut costs, they persuade a 55-year old to take early retirement. Take away seniority-based

pay scales, and older workers may become a much more attractive employment proposition.

But most employers and many workers are uncomfortable with the idea of reducing

someone’s pay in later life – although manual workers on piece-rates often earn less as they

get older. So, retaining the services of older workers may mean employing them in different

ways.

 

One innovation was devised by IBM Belgium. Faced with the need to cut staff costs, and

having decided to concentrate cuts on 55 to 60-year olds, IBM set up a separate company

called Skill Team, which re-employed any of the early retired who wanted to go on working

up to the age of 60. An employee who joined Skill Team at the age of 55 on a five-year

contract would work for 58% of his time, over the full period, for 88% of his last IBM salary.

The company offered services to IBM, thus allowing it to retain access to some of the

intellectual capital it would otherwise have lost.

 

The best way to tempt the old to go on working may be to build on such ‘bridge’ jobs: part-

time or temporary employment that creates a more gradual transition from full-time work to

retirement. Studies have found that, in the United States, nearly half of all men and women

who had been in full-time jobs in middle age moved into such ‘bridge’ jobs at the end of their

working lives. In general, it is the best-paid and worst-paid who carry on working. There

seem to be two very different types of bridge job-holder – those who continue working

because they have to and those who continue working because they want to, even though

they could afford to retire.

 

If the job market grows more flexible, the old may find more jobs that suit them. Often, they

will be self-employed. Sometimes, they may start their own businesses: a study by David

Storey of Warwick University found that in Britain 70% of businesses started by people over

55 survived, compared with an overall national average of only 19%. But whatever pattern of

employment they choose, in the coming years the skills of these ‘grey workers’ will have to

be increasingly acknowledged and rewarded.

 

 



Notes on how I answered the questions

1)  First, I read each of the sentences and their four possible endings to get a general idea of the information they contain.

Next, I skim read the text, again to get the general meaning. I then go to question 1 and underline key words in it.

1 In paragraph one, the writer suggests that companies could consider

           A    abolishing pay schemes that are based on age.

          B    avoiding pay that is based on piece-rates.

          C    increasing pay for older workers.

          D    equipping older workers with new skills.

I notice that three of the options have the key word ‘pay’ in them so I scan for this first. Since the answers will be in order in the text, I expect this answer to be fairly near the beginning of the passage so concentrate on paragraph 1 to start with.

 

The general assumption is that older workers are paid more in spite of, rather than because of, their productivity. That might partly explain why, when employers are under pressure to cut costs, they persuade a 55-year old to take early retirement. Take away seniority-based pay scales, and older workers may become a much more attractive employment proposition. But most employers and many workers are uncomfortable with the idea of reducing someone’s pay in later life – although manual workers on piece-rates often earn less as they get older. So retaining the services of older workers may mean employing them in different ways.

 

Pay’ appears twice. I highlight it. I’m pretty sure that the answer will be in this paragraph so now scan for the other key words I’ve selected – abolishingavoidingincreasing and equipping – or obvious synonyms.

I don’t immediately spot any, so read in detail to try and find the information I need, paying particular attention to the sentences in the text with the word ‘pay’ in.

I identify a sentence that looks promising. It contains the words ‘take away‘ which are a synonym of ‘abolish’, the key word I’ve underlined in option A. The sentence reads,



Take away seniority-based pay scales, and older workers may become a much more attractive employment proposition.

 

I look at question 1 again to check if the information in the text and answer option A match.

 A    abolishing pay schemes that are based on age.

They do seem to.

I re-read and evaluate the other option answers. B and C are definitely not a match with the text.



I briefly consider D, as it’s a possible match to the last sentence in the paragraph.



                                     D    equipping older workers with new skills.

So retaining the services of older workers may mean employing them in different ways.

 

However, I decide that ‘equipping older workers with new skills’, is not the same as ‘employing them in different ways’. So, the correct answer must be option A.

Answer: 1 A






2)  I move on to question 2. 

2  Skill Team is an example of a company which

          A    offers older workers increases in salary.

          B    allows people to continue working for as long as they want.

          C    allows the expertise of older workers to be put to use.

          D    treats older and younger workers equally.



I scan for ‘Skill Team’ the company mentioned in the sentence, starting from the location of the last answer. It appears twice in the second paragraph so this is where the answer will be. 

 

One innovation was devised by IBM Belgium. Faced with the need to cut staff costs, and having decided to concentrate cuts on 55 to 60-year olds, IBM set up a separate company called Skill Team, which re-employed any of the early retired who wanted to go on working up to the age of 60. An employee who joined Skill Team at the age of 55 on a five-year contract would work for 58% of his time, over the full period, for 88% of his last IBM salary. The company offered services to IBM, thus allowing it to retain access to some of the intellectual capital it would otherwise have lost.

 

There are no obvious key words to scan for in the 4 options sentence endings.

My strategy this time is to carefully read the options and try to understand the information in each of them and also to underline the word or phrase in each that gives the key information that I need to try and match with the text.

I then read paragraph 2 in detail, looking out for matching ideas.

I quickly discount AB and D as there is no information to support any of these statements. The answer must, therefore, be C.

Answer: 2 C

 

The matching information for option C is hidden in paraphrasing but can be found in the final phrase of the paragraph, which reads:

 ....allowing it to retain access to some of the intellectual capital it would otherwise have lost.

The synonym of ‘expertise’ used in the text is ‘intellectual capital’. It’s quite likely you won’t know this, but you’ll still be able to select the correct answer simply by eliminating the rest as clearly incorrect.

 


 

3)  Now for question 3. 

3  According to the writer, ‘bridge’ jobs

          A    tend to attract people in middle-salary ranges.

          B    are better paid than some full-time jobs.

          C    originated in the United States.

         D    appeal to distinct groups of older workers.

 

I scan for ‘bridge’ jobs. Again, since the answers will come in order in the text, I scan from the location of the last answer. It appears 3 times in paragraph 3 so this is where the answer will be.



The best way to tempt the old to go on working may be to build on such ‘bridge’ jobs: part-time or temporary employment that creates a more gradual transition from full-time work to retirement. Studies have found that, in the United States, nearly half of all men and women who had been in full-time jobs in middle age moved into such ‘bridge’ jobs at the end of their working lives. In general, it is the best-paid and worst-paid who carry on working. There seem to be two very different types of bridge job-holder – those who continue working because they have to and those who continue working because they want to, even though they could afford to retire.



As with the previous question, I carefully read the options and try to understand the information in each of them. I also underline the word or phrase in each that gives the key information that I need to try and match with the text.

I then read paragraph 3 in detail, looking out for matching ideas.

I spot ‘United States’ in the text so read that sentence again to check if the information matches option C which also has ‘United States’ in it. The text states that a study was carried out in the United States while option C says that ‘bridge’ jobs originated there. The information does not match so I can discount option C.

Also, there’s no information in the paragraph about how much people are paid to do ‘bridge’ jobs, so I cross through option B as well.

I can now see that the answer must be in the last two sentences of the paragraph. I’ve already discounted the second sentence about the study in the United States and the first sentence just explains what a ‘bridge’ job is.

I re-read the remaining options, A and D, then carefully read the last two sentences of the paragraph.

                                   A    tend to attract people in middle-salary ranges.

                                   D    appeal to distinct groups of older workers.

In general, it is the best-paid and worst-paid who carry on working. There seem to be two very different types of bridge job-holder – those who continue working because they have to and those who continue working because they want to, even though they could afford to retire.

 

The text mentions two types of workers who generally continue working – the best-paid and worst-paid. There is no mention of ‘people in middle-salary ranges’, so option A is not correct.

That just leaves me with option D. Whilst the information in this statement is paraphrased, it clearly matches the text so is the right answer.

Answer: 3 D



As you can see, finding the correct match is often a process of eliminating the other options.






4)  I move on to the final question. 

4  David Storey’s study found that

          A    people demand more from their work as they get older.

          B    older people are good at running their own businesses.

          C    an increasing number of old people are self-employed.

          D    few young people have their own businesses.



I scan for 'David Storey'. It’s always good to have a name to scan for as it will be easy to find. I find it in the last paragraph.

 

If the job market grows more flexible, the old may find more jobs that suit them. Often, they will be self-employed. Sometimes, they may start their own businesses: a study by David Storey of Warwick University found that in Britain 70% of businesses started by people over 55 survived, compared with an overall national average of only 19%. But whatever pattern of employment they choose, in the coming years the skills of these ‘grey workers’ will have to be increasingly acknowledged and rewarded.

 

As before, I carefully read the options and underline the word or phrase that highlight ideas I need to look for in the text. I then read the text in detail.

This is one of those questions where it’s easy to get caught out as there’s information in the paragraph relating to several of the possible answers, especially about self-employment and owning a business.

I need to be sure that I focus only on what David Storey’s study found out, which is that in Britain, 

70% of businesses started by people over 55 survived, compared with an overall national average of only 19%’.

I re-read the options one by one to see which is the best fit. It’s option B, ‘older people are good at running their own businesses’. There’s some interpretation needed here but this is the only option that matches the information in the sentence.

The answer is 4 B.



And that’s the whole question completed.

     Answers

 1 A abolishing pay schemes that are based on age

 2 C allows the expertise of older workers to be put to use

 3 D appeal to distinct groups of older workers

 4 B older people are good at running their own business

 

 

 

 

Sample Reading Passage

One of the most famous works of art in the world is Leonardo da Vinci’s Mona Lisa. Nearly everyone who goes to see the original will already be familiar with it from reproductions, but they accept that fine art is more rewardingly viewed in its original form. However, if the Mona Lisa was a famous novel, few people would bother to go to a museum to read the writer’s actual manuscript rather than a printed reproduction. This might be explained by the fact that the novel has evolved precisely because of technological developments that made it possible to print out huge numbers of texts, whereas oil paintings have always been produced as unique objects. In addition, it could be argued that the practice of interpreting or ‘reading’ each medium follows different conventions. With novels, the reader attends mainly to the meaning of words rather than the way they are printed on the page, whereas the ‘reader’ of a painting must attend just as closely to the material form of marks and shapes in the picture as to any ideas they may signify.

Questions:

1 According to the passage, Monalisa is :

A Da Vinci’s masterpiece

B One of the famous works of art

C Just another painting

D The only work on art

2 Why do people want to view art in its original form?

A They can appreciate art better in its original form.

B They are tired of viewing duplicates.

C both A & B

D None of the above

3 According to the passage, what is the difference between a novel and a painting?

A No difference

B Novels are unique.

C Paintings are unique objects.

D None of the above

4 What is the difference between reading a novel and a painting?

A No difference.

B In a novel, they have to carefully observe the way they are printed and in a painting it is just reading the meaning.

C In a painting, they have to carefully observe the way they are printed and in a novel it is just reading the meaning.

D None of the above

Explanation for the Answers:

·       For the first question, the answer is in the first line which says ”One of the most famous works of art in the world is Leonardo da Vinci’s Mona Lisa”. So the answer is “B. One of the famous works of art”.

·       For the second question, the answer is in the second line which says “fine art is more rewardingly viewed in its original form” which means that they can appreciate art better in its original form. “Rewardingly viewed” can also mean “appreciate better”. So the answer is A.

·       For the third question, the answer is in the third line which says “oil paintings have always been produced as unique objects.” So the answer is C.

·       For the fourth question, the answer is in the last line which says “With novels, the reader attends mainly to the meaning of words rather than the way they are printed on the page, whereas the ‘reader’ of a painting must attend just as closely to the material form of marks and shapes in the picture as to any ideas they may signify.” So the answer is C.

 

 

 

Common Mistakes You Should Avoid While IELTS Reading MCQ Practice

There are some mistakes that candidates make while answering the IELTS Reading multiple choice questions. If you are aware of them, then it will be helpful to avoid them while IELTS Academic Reading multiple choice questions practice. So, let’s learn about them.

·       Reading the passage before the questions means that you are reading “blindly” and won’t know what to search for. Additionally, you waste time because you have to read the content again after reading the questions, meaning that the first reading was a waste of time.

·       Not paying close attention to the text – Owing to the presence of distractors, certain options might seem to be the correct response. As a result, you will select the wrong response if you don’t attentively read the text.

·       Not reading the entire question or statement in the paragraph: The main sentence in the paragraph or the question may seem to make sense in its first section, but its second half may convey a different meaning by using linkers like ‘however’, ‘but’ can completely alter the meaning of a sentence. Examiners will try to deceive you in this way since they are aware that you are attempting to find the answers as soon as possible.

·       Failing to respond to questions – Even though it is surprising, not answering the question is a common mistake that candidates make. Remember that the IELTS exam does not have any negative marking. So, even if you are confused between 2 options, try to choose the closest one and who knows it might fetch you a score.

 

 

 

 

Sample Reading Passage:

The use of hot-air balloons can be traced back to the Three Kingdoms era of Chinese history (220-280 AD). Zhuge Liang used these early incarnations, known as Kongming lanterns, as military signals. The first manned flight on record took place in France on October 15th, 1783. In a balloon constructed by Jacques-Etienne Montgolfier, a Frenchman named Pilatre de Rozier was elevated eighty feet off the ground. Modern hot-air balloons, with their capacity to ascend or descend and occasionally ‘steer’ at the pilot’s will, were first developed by Ed Yost in the 1950s. The Bristol Belle is generally regarded as the first modern hot-air balloon and had its inaugural flight in 1967. Since then, balloon technology has become extremely sophisticated. Some hot-air balloons have reached altitudes of 21,000 metres, travelled over 7,500 kilometres, and reached speeds of up to 400 kilometres per hour.

Questions:

Choose the correct letter A-D next to question 1-5 on the answer sheet.

1. According to the passage, In which era did the hot-air balloons come into use?

  1. Six dynasties (220-589 AD) 
  2. Three kingdoms era (220-280 AD) 
  3. Shang dynasty (1600-1046 BC) 
  4. Imperial China (221 BC – 1912 AD) 

2. Who used the early incarnation of the hot-air balloons? 

  1. Liu Bei
  2. Cao Cao
  3. Sima Yi
  4. Zhuge Liang

3. When did the first manned hot air balloon come into use? 

  1. October 15,1783
  2. September 19, 1783
  3. November 21, 1783 
  4. August 18, 1783

4. Who developed the Modern Day Hot-air Balloons? 

  1. Zhuge Liang 
  2. Pilatre de Rozier
  3. Ed Yost
  4. Joseph-Micheal Montgolfier

5.What was the name given to the first modern hot air balloon? 

  1. Roziere Balloons
  2. Aerostat Reveillon
  3. Vijayapat Singhania 
  4. Bristol Belle 

Answers:

  1. Three Kingdoms era (220-280 AD)
  2. Zhuge Liang
  3. October 15, 1783
  4. Ed Yost
  5. Bristol Belle

 

 

Sample Reading Passage:

Martin Luther King was born on January 15, 1929, in Atlanta, Georgia. He was the son of the Reverend Martin Luther King, Sr. and Alberta Williams King. He had an older sister, Willie Christine King, and a younger brother Alfred Daniel Williams King. Growing up in Atlanta, King attended Booker T. Washington High School. He skipped ninth and twelfth grades and entered Morehouse College at age fifteen without formally graduating from high school. From the time that Martin was born, he knew that black people and white people had different rights in certain parts of America.

 

 

Questions:

Choose the correct letter A-D from the question next to 1-5. 

1.When and where was Martin Luther King born? 

  1. April 4, 1968, Memphis, Tennessee 
  2. January 15, 1929, Atlanta, Georgia 
  3. November 21, 1933, Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania 
  4. March 23, 1925, Ulm, Germany 

2. How many siblings did Martin Luther King have? 

  1. Three siblings 
  2. One sibling
  3. Two siblings
  4. None of the above 

3. Which school did Martin Luther King attend? 

  1. Booker T. Washington High School 
  2. The Galloway School 
  3. Carver High school 
  4. Warren T. Jackson School 

4. Which grades did Martin Luther king skip to enter college? 

  1. 6th & 11the grade
  2. 10th & 7th grade 
  3. 9th & 12th grade 
  4. 8th and 12th grade 

5.What did Martin Luther King know from the beginning of his birth? 

  1. Different rights for black & white people in America 
  2. Black people deprived of education rights in America
  3. No rights for black people to vote in America 
  4. Couldn’t understand why white people were treated better than the black people

Answers:

  1. January 15, 1929, Atlanta, Georgia.
  2. Two Siblings
  3. Booker T. Washington High School.
  4. 9th & 12th grade
  5. Different rights for black & white people in America.

 

 

Sample Reading Passage:

As, over the last four hundred years, tea-leaves became available throughout much of Asia and Europe, the ways in which tea was drunk changed. The Chinese considered the quality of the leaves and the ways in which they were cured are essential. People in other cultures added new ingredients besides tea-leaves and hot water. They drank tea with milk, sugar, spices like cinnamon and cardamom, and herbs such as mint or sage. The variations are endless. For example, in Western Sudan, on the edge of the Sahara Desert, sesame oil is added to milky tea on cold mornings. In England, tea, unlike coffee, acquired a reputation as a therapeutic drink that promoted health. Indeed, in European and Arab countries as well as in Persia and Russia, tea was praised for its restorative and health-giving properties. One Dutch physician, Cornelius Blankaart, advised that to maintain health, a minimum of eight to ten cups a day should be drunk and that up to 50 to 100 daily cups could be consumed safely.

Questions:

Choose letters A-D from questions 1-5. 

1.According to the passage, in which countries did the tea leaves become available over the last 400 years? 

  1. Russia & USA 
  2. England & France 
  3. Asia & Europe 
  4. Persia & Russia 

2. What were the other ingredients added while making the tea? 

  1. Sugar & Milk
  2. Herbs (Mint & Sage) 
  3. Spices (Cinnamon & Cardamom) 
  4. All of the above 

3. In which place was sesame oil added to milky tea? 

  1. On the edge of the Sahara Desert, Western Sudan
  2. Japanese and Middle Eastern countries 
  3. Southern Arab countries 
  4. None of the above

4. Which countries have praised tea for its restorative and health-giving properties? 

  1. Arab & Europe
  2. Persia & Russia 
  3. Both A & B 
  4. England & France 

5.Which physician advised to consume eight to ten cups of tea a day? 

  1. Al-zahrawi
  2. Ibn Sina
  3. Sushruta
  4. Cornelius Blankaart 

 Answers:


  1. Asia & Europe
  2. All of the above
  3. On the edge of Sahara Desert, Western Sudan
  4. Both A & B 
  5. Cornelius Blankaart


 

 

Sample Reading Passage:

One of the most evocative eras in the history of poetry must surely be that of the Romantic Movement. During the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries, a group of poets created a new mood in literary objectives, casting off their predecessors’ styles in favor of a gripping and forceful art that endures with us to this day. Five poets emerged as the main constituents of this movement – William Wordsworth, Samuel Taylor Coleridge, George Gordon Byron, Percy Bysshe Shelley, and John Keats. The strength of their works lies undoubtedly in the power of their imagination. Indeed, imagination was the most critical attribute of the Romantic poets. Each poet had the ability to portray remarkable images and visions, although differing to a certain degree in their intensity and presentation. Nature, mythology, and emotion were of great importance and were used to explore the feelings of the poet himself.

 

 

Questions:

Choose letters A-D from questions 1-5. 

1.Which is considered to be the most evocative era in the history of poetry? 

  1. Pastoralism
  2. Metaphysical poets
  3. Elizabethan & Shakespearean Era
  4. Romantic Movement 

2. In which century did a group of poets create a new mood in literature? 

  1. 15th & 16th century 
  2. Late 18th century 
  3. Late 18th & early 19th century 
  4. None of the above 

3. How many poets were the main constituents of the Romantic Movement? 

  1. Six poets
  2. Five Poets
  3. A group of 7 poets
  4. Three poets

4.What is considered to be one of the most critical attributes of romantic poets? 

  1. Descriptive imagery
  2. Choice of meter
  3. Imagination 
  4. Emotions & Intentions 

5. What elements were important for poets to explore their feelings? 

  1. Nature
  2. Mythology 
  3. Emotions
  4. All of the above 

Answers:

1. Romantic Movement 

2. Late 18th & early 19th century 

3. Five poets 

4. Imagination 

5. All of the above. 

 

 

Sample Reading Passage:

Humans can live about a month without food but only a few days without water. Because 70 percent of the human body is water, weight loss in some quick diets is dramatic due to water loss. Of all the water globally, only about 2.5 percent is fresh, and two-thirds of this is locked up in glaciers and ice caps. Nobody knows how much water is underground or in permafrost. All life on earth is sustained by a fraction of one percent of the world’s water. If a five-liter jug (about 1.3 gallons) represented the world’s water, the available freshwater would not fill a teaspoon.

Questions:

Choose answers from letter A-D from questions 1-5. 

1.What is the percentage of water available in the human body? 

  1.  80%
  2. 70%
  3. 46% 
  4. Between 45% and 60% 

2. How much fresh-water is locked up in glaciers? 

  1.  Two-third 
  2. One-fourth
  3. Two-fourth 
  4. One-third 

3. What percentage of the Earth’s water supports life? 

  1. Fraction of one percent 
  2. 2.5% 
  3. 1.2%
  4. None of the above 

4. What causes dramatic weight-loss? 

  1. Water loss in the body. 
  2. Intake of excess electrolytes. 
  3. Excess workout. 
  4. A balanced diet and regular exercise. 

5. How much of the world’s water is freshwater? 

  1. 3.5% 
  2. 0. 3%
  3. 1.2%
  4. None of the above 

Answers:

1.70%

2. Two-third

3. Fraction of one percent 

4. Due to water loss in the body 

5. None of the above 

 

 

Sample Reading Passage:

An educated population and improved infrastructure of roads and communications add to the mix. In the Caribbean region, Cuba is now the second most popular tourist destination. Ecotourism is also seen as an environmental education opportunity to heighten both visitors’ and residents’ awareness of environmental and conservation issues, and even to inspire conservation action by providing opportunities for educational and cultural exchange. Tourists’ safety and health are guaranteed. Raul Castro, brother of the Cuban president, started this initiative to rescue the Cuban tradition of herbal medicine and provide natural medicines for its healthcare system. The school at Las Terrazas Eco-Tourism Community teaches herbal healthcare and children learn not only how to use medicinal herbs, but also to grow them in the school garden for teas, tinctures, ointments, and creams. In Cuba, ecotourism has the potential to alleviate poverty by bringing money into the economy and creating jobs. In addition to the environmental impacts of these efforts, the area works on developing community employment opportunities for locals in conjunction with ecotourism.

Questions:

Choose answers from letters A-D next to question 1-5. 

1. Which island has become the second most popular tourist destination? And Why?

  1. Bora Bora, for its soft white sand beaches, crystal clear waters, sapphire blue skies, and seclusion.
  2. Cuba, for its good climate, beaches, Georgian style architecture, and distinct cultural history.
  3. Maui, for its world-famous beaches, the sacred Iao Valley, views of migrating humpback whales (during winter months), farm-to-table cuisine, and the magnificent sunrise and sunset. 
  4. Tahiti, for its Calm blue lagoons, white-sand beaches, friendly people, swaying coconut trees, and black pearl farms. 

2. What was the name of the Cuban presidents’ brother, who started the initiative of herbal medicine in Cuba? 

  1. Gaston Browne
  2. Hubert Minnis
  3. Johnny Briceno
  4. Raul Castro

3. What does ecotourism bring to a place

  1. It provides educational and cultural exchange opportunities. 
  2. It enhances ecological  sensitivity. 
  3. A and B  
  4. None of the above

4. What do the students learn in the school at Las Terrazas Ecotourism community? 

  1. Biomedicine 
  2. Herbal healthcare 
  3. Ayurvedic Healthcare 
  4. Electrohomeopathy 

5. Why is ecotourism important in Cuba? 

  1. It is one of the main sources of revenue in Cuba. 
  2. It has the potential to alleviate poverty by creating more jobs
  3. Both A & B
  4. None of the above 

Answer:

1.Cuba, for its good climatic conditions, beaches, Georgian-style architecture, and distinct cultural history. 

2. Raul Castro. 

3. All of the above. 

4. Herbal Healthcare. 

5. Both A & B. 

 

 

Sample Reading Passage:

Another common myth about sleep is that the body requires less sleep the older we get. Whilst It is true that babies need 16 hours compared to 9 hours and 8 hours respectively for teenagers and adults, this does not mean that older people need less sleep. However, what is true is that for a number of different factors, they often get less sleep or find their sleep less refreshing. This is because as people age, they spend less time in the deep, restful stages of sleep and are more easily awakened. Older people are also more likely to have medical conditions that affect their sleep, such as insomnia, sleep apnea, and heart problems. Sleep patterns can be broken down into two separate and distinct stages – REM and NREM sleep. 

 

 

Questions:

Choose answers from letters A-D next to questions 1-5.

1.How many hours of sleep does a baby require ?

  1. More than 9 hours 
  2. Less than 12 hours 
  3. More than or equal to 16 hours 
  4. 17 hours 

2. Identify the stages of sleep pattern. 

  1. Rapid eye movement (REM sleep) 
  2. Non-rapid eye movement (NREM sleep) 
  3. Neither A nor B
  4. Both A & B 

3. What are the medical conditions that may affect the sleeping pattern of older people? 

  1. Insomnia 
  2. Sleep apnea 
  3. Heart problems 
  4. All of the above 

4. From the passage, what is the common myth about sleep? 

  1. Your brain does shuts down during sleep 
  2. Adults don’t sleep more with age 
  3. Adults and older people can manage with minimal hours of sleep.
  4. All of the above 

5. How many hours of sleep are required for teenagers and adults? 

  1. 9 hours to 12 hours
  2. 7 hours to 9 hours 
  3. 9 hours to 8 hours 
  4. 5 hours to 7 hours. 

Answers: 


1.More than or equal to 16 hours 

2. Both A & B

3. All of the above 

4. None of the above 

5. 7 hours to 9 hours. 

 

 







Sample Reading Passage:

The first telescopes built in the early 1600s were very primitive inventions allowing the user to see around 3-times further than the naked eye. It was not too long, however, until Italian astronomer Galileo heard about the invention ‘that through use of correctly-positioned lenses, allowed people to see things a long way away. The tools used in the manufacturing of the first refracting telescope were all Galileo needed to know and within 24 hours he had developed a better one. In fact, the process of improvements Galileo made on Lippershey’s telescope was quite dramatic. Whereas the original version had a magnification of 3, the new telescope had a magnification of around 30. Galileo achieved these extraordinary results by figuring out the combination of the positions of the lenses and also by making his own lenses that were of better quality. Although he originally thought they were stars, the better quality lenses – and some scientific analysis – enabled him to eventually use his telescopes to see the moons of Jupiter. Galileo’s refracting telescopes – so-called due to the way they handled the light that passed through them – were the standard at that time.

 

 

 

Questions:

Choose answers from letter A-D next to questions 1-5. 

1.When was the first primitive telescope invented? 

  1. Late 1700s
  2. Early 1600s
  3. 1709
  4. 1609

2. What did Galileo wanted to know? 

  1. Tools used in the making of a refracting telescope
  2. How many magnification lenses was used 
  3. Both A & B
  4. None of the above 

3. How many magnification lenses were used by Galileo in the manufacturing of telescopes? 

  1.  Less than 30 lenses
  2. Exactly 30 lenses 
  3. More than 30 lenses
  4. Nearly 30 lenses 

4. What enabled Galileo to see the moons of Jupiter through his telescope? 

  1. Good quality lenses
  2. Scientific examination 
  3. Both A & B 
  4. None of the above 

5. How many hours did it take for Galileo to develop an improved telescope? 

  1. Around 24 hours 
  2. Exactly 24 hours 
  3. More than 24 hours 
  4. Less than 24 hours 

Answers

1.Early 1600s

2. Tools used in the making of a refracting telescope

3. Nearly 30 lenses 

4. Both A & B

5. Less than 24 hours 

 

 

 

Sample Reading Passage:

E. On a dear day, you can see as far as 67 kilometers across Paris. More than 300,000,000 people have visited the Tower since its completion in 1889, making it one of the most visited monuments in Europe. Every seven years, the Eiffel Tower is repainted with 50 to 60 tonnes of paint to protect its framework from rust. So that the Eiffel Tower appears the same color at each level when viewing it from the ground up, the Tower is painted in three different shades of the same color. The bottom is painted with the darkest brown and the lightest at the top of the tower. At the time of its completion, the Eiffel Tower was the world’s tallest structure until New York’s Chrysler building was completed in 1930.

 

 

Questions:

Choose answers from letters A-D next to questions.

1.When was the Eiffel Tower built? 

  1. Early 1890
  2. Late 1860
  3. 1889 
  4. 1887 

2. Which was the most visited monument in Europe during late 1889? 

  1. Notre-Dame de Paris
  2. Louvre Museum 
  3. The British Museum 
  4. The Eiffel Tower 

3. How often is the Eiffel Tower repainted? 

  1. In seven years
  2. For a period of seven years
  3. Less than seven years
  4. None of the above 

4. Why is the Eiffel Tower repainted? 

  1.  It doesn’t lose foundation shine. 
  2. To protect its framework from humidity and rain 
  3. To safeguard its structure from rust 
  4. All of the above 

5. Which was considered to be the tallest structure in the world during the early 19th century?

  1. Eiffel Tower, Paris
  2. Burj Khalifa, Dubai
  3. Les Olympiads
  4. Chrysler Building, New York 

6. In which color is the bottom of the Eiffel Tower repainted? 

  1. Rosy brown
  2. Dark brown 
  3. Cocoa brown
  4. Walnut brown 

7. How far can the Eiffel Tower be seen?

  1. About 67 Kilometres 
  2. As far as 70 Kilometres 
  3. Nearly 67 Kilometres 
  4. None of the above 

Answers:

1.1889

2. The Eiffel Tower 

3. In seven years

4. To safeguard its structure from rust 

5. Chrysler Building, New York 

6. Dark Brown 

7. About 67 Kilometres 

 

 

Sample Reading Passage:

In many industrial or manufacturing workplaces, managing hazards is essential for a successful health and safety system. Hazard management is an ongoing process that goes through five different stages, with each step becoming a stage on a tire hazard management plan. The first step is to identify potential hazards, remembering that hazards are classed as anything that could potentially cause harm not only to people but also to the organization. To illustrate, an industrial accident can cause an injury to employees, but can also result in lost production, broken machinery, and wasted resources for the company, In many cases, local and national government legislation has strict regulations concerning hazard identification, and in many industries, especially those perceived to be dangerous, severe penalties can be incurred by companies overlooking such hazard identification.

 

 

 

Questions:

Choose answers from letters A-D next to questions 1-5. 

1.Why is managing hazards essential in industrial or manufacturing workplaces? 

  1. For well-being and protection of the workers
  2. For health reasons
  3. For workplace safety 
  4. All the above 

2. According to the passage, how many stages should hazard management undergo? 

  1. Five distinct stages 
  2. More than five stages 
  3. Almost five different stages 
  4. More or less than five stages 

3. What is the first step of a hazard management plan? 

  1. Evaluate the risks involved 
  2. Analyze the harm
  3. Both A & B
  4. Recognize the risks involved

4. What are the risks involved in an industrial accident? 

  1. Injuries to the workers
  2. Enormous impact on the economy 
  3. Loss of productivity 
  4. Both A & C 

5. According to the passage, on what basis has the government imposed strict regulations on the industries? 

  1. Danger to the life of workers
  2. Failing to observe hazards 
  3. Recognition of threats 
  4. None of the above 

Answers:

1.All of the above 

2. Five distinct stages 

3. Recognize the risks involved 

4. Both A & C 

5. Recognition threats. 

 


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